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Monday, September 20, 2010

Is the Torah Socialistic? - The Relationship Between the Torah's Agricultural Poverty-Relief Laws, and Social-Democratic Egalitarian Redistribution of Wealth

In ideological support of social-democratic egalitarian redistribution of wealth, many will cite the laws of peah, leket, and shikheha, which are respectively the laws in the Torah mandating that a farmer leave behind the corners of his field, the grain that his hand or sickle missed while harvesting, and the grain which he dropped or forgot to gather up from his field. There is also olelot, immature clusters of grapes that must be left, and peret, the grapes' equivalent of leket. Then, there is ma'aseer `ani, a tithe that must be given on the third and sixth year of the seven-year shemita cycle, and finally, there is the shemita year itself, when all field grain and produce is declared ownerless and free for the taking. According to all these laws, certain amounts of grain and produce must be left for the poor. And of course, there is the general obligation to give tzedaqa.

From all this, many wish to derive that the Torah is socialistic, or at least, that it is social-democratic, and would permit (if not demand) a government-instituted egalitarian redistribution of wealth. But there are two mistakes with this:

According to RambaM's Shemonah Peraqim, all of these agriculture laws that I have listed, are not meant to provide for the poor, but are only meant to incline the individual towards the side of generosity. According to RambaM's general theory of the Mean/Middle, an individual should always be situated between two extremes of character; for example, he should be generous, which is between miserliness and spendthriftiness; he should be kind and friendly and easygoing but stand up for himself when necessary, which is between being rude and brazen and easy to anger, on the one hand, and being so soft that one is walked all over by others, on the other. But, says RambaM, humans are naturally inclined slightly to the side of selfishness, and so they are more likely to be slightly rude or slightly miserly, than they are to be perfectly in the middle. On the other hand, RambaM says, when men try to be pious and righteous, they often overcompensate and incline too much towards the side of selflessness, and become too charitable and too soft and easygoing. Similarly, a person will naturally be slightly gluttonous, while a pious person will usually be too abstentious. The purpose of the ritual mitzvot of the Torah, says the RambaM, is to incline us very slightly towards the side of selflessness, to counteract our natural selfishness. Therefore, for example, a person, who is naturally slightly selfish and unwilling to give tzedaqa, will be corrected by the agricultural laws, and become situated in the perfect middle, the sweet spot between miserliness and spendthriftiness. To counteract the opposite danger, that the pious man will be too selfless and give away too much money to tzedaqa, RambaM says that men must do exactly what the Torah says; he quotes the Yerushalmi's criticism of excessive stringency and piety, saying (as if G-d is speaking), "It was not enough what I forbade you, that you had to forbid yourself more?", and also Hazal's saying, "A man should not say, 'I hate pork', but rather, 'I love pork, but what can I do, for my Father in Heaven has forbidden it.'" That is, a pious person should be content with what the Torah has mandated and forbidden, and not try to innovate new pietistic customs and prohibitions. This way, says the RambaM, a man will be inclined from selfishness towards generosity, but not too far.

What this means for us, now, however, is that the agricultural laws of the Torah are not meant to provide for the poor. They are merely an ethical corrective for the personality of the farmer himself. Actual provision for the poor must be provided from voluntary tzedaqa, entirely aside from the agricultural tithes. In fact, Rabbi Samson Raphael Hirsch agrees completely with the RambaM. Rabbi Hirsch does not get into so involved a philosophical-psychological treatment as does the RambaM, but he briefly states that mathematically, leaving a small corner of one's field could not possibly be sufficient for the welfare of the poor, and therefore, he says, the purpose of these laws is to teach the farmer an object lesson, to demonstrate to him the principle that one must give tzedaqa, and to demonstrate to him that in essence, his farmland belongs to G-d, not to the farmer, and that the farmer must be a charitable and humble person in general. The purpose of the agricultural tithes, he says, is pedagogical and symbolic, not practical.

So the agricultural tithes cannot possibly serve as a justification for egalitarian redistribution of wealth. The Torah's agricultural tithes are symbolic and educational, not practical. They cannot serve as a model for the institution of egalitaritan redistribution of wealth, because such redistribution is meant to actually solve the plight of the poor, whereas the Torah's example is merely symbolic. This does not mean that the egalitarian redistribution of wealth is prohibited by the Torah, but it does mean that one cannot derive warrant for it from the Torah, either. It is floating in the air, without basis, with neither assent nor dissent by the Torah, at least insofar as we have seen yet.

This begs the question, however: is egalitarianism merely not warranted by the Torah, or is it actually prohibited by the Torah. To answer this question, we must consider this: the Torah's laws are explicitly mandated by G-d, and are binding only on the individual. This means two things:
(1)It is the individual's obligation to leave the tithes, not the government's;
(2) We cannot innovate new laws that G-d has not given.
G-d has commanded man precisely which tithes to give. What right does the government have to create new obligations that G-d has not? And even the tithes that G-d did institute, the Torah commands individuals to leave them, not the government. A man can sue his fellow only when he has caused direct harm. If I owe a definite someone a definite amount of money, then he can sue me. But if I have failed to give tzedaqa to the poor in general, then no poor man can sue me, for no individual, specific poor man can claim I have harmed him. So even the tithes G-d has instituted, if one fails to give them, what right does the government have to intervene? Who is going to sue the farmer? All the more so, then, the tithes that the human government invented, the government has no right to punish violators.

Now, I am not learned in Jewish civil law and criminal. Perhaps, in fact, a man who fails to leave the proper agricultural tithes, with two witnesses present, has in fact performed a crime against society, similar to a Shabbat violator. Perhaps, in fact, the negligent farmer can be brought to court, and given lashings for general disobedience of the Torah, for violating a negative prohibition of the Torah. I am not sure, because I am not sufficiently learned in Jewish civil and criminal law. But even if he can be so punished, it is certainly the case that the government cannot institute new tithes. The specific tithes that G-d instituted, maybe the government can punish one for failure to leave them, or maybe not - I do not know. But it is certain that the government cannot punish one for failing to leave tithes that it, not G-d, innovated.

And it is absolutely, positively certain that the government cannot punish one who merely fails to give tzedaqa in general. At no one moment can any witnesses say that a sin has been committed. The obligation to give tzedaqa is one that applies at all times, in all places. The only sins in the Torah that can be punished by the government, are those that involve some definite and concrete act of commission or omission. For example, if one bows down to an idol, then he has committed a definite sin of commission. If one fails to put on tefillin by sundown, then he has committed a definite sin of omission. But with tzedaqa, one can never point to a specific moment and say to the sinner, "You have sinned right now." All sins in the Torah must have two witnesses and a warning by the witnesses, in order to be punishable. But when can the witnesses warn our miser? At no one specific moment in time can they blame him for anything!

Update: It became clear in the comments section below (specifically, in this and this reader comment), that I did not make clear enough the following: this entire post is arguing whether the Torah can be used as a source for socialism and egalitarian redistribution of wealth. So when I say the government cannot do such-and-such, I mean that it cannot do it if it claims its warrant is the Torah. My point is simply that if one claims the Torah is one's source, then one cannot justify socialism or egalitarian redistribution of wealth. I am not trying to deal with other sources and justifications for that economy. Nevertheless, however, I will note that we should not underestimate the magnitude of the Torah's authority. That is, we should not underestimate how decimitating it would be for socialists if the Torah did not agree with them. When Rabbi Meir Kahane augmented his swearing-in-oath to the Knesset, adding that he would put observance of the Torah above loyalty to the state, he cited Martin Luther King, Jr.'s "Letter from a Birmingham Jail":
One may want to ask: "How can you advocate breaking some laws and obeying others?" The answer lies in the fact that there are two types of laws: just and unjust. I would be the first to advocate obeying just laws. One has not only a legal but a moral responsibility to obey just laws. Conversely, one has a moral responsibility to disobey unjust laws. I would agree with St. Augustine that "an unjust law is no law at all"

Now, what is the difference between the two? How does one determine whether a law is just or unjust? A just law is a man-made code that squares with the moral law or the law of God. An unjust law is a code that is out of harmony with the moral law. To put it in the terms of St. Thomas Aquinas: An unjust law is a human law that is not rooted in eternal law and natural law. Any law that uplifts human personality is just. Any law that degrades human personality is unjust. All segregation statutes are unjust because segregation distorts the soul and damages the personality.
Similarly, James Otis, one of the most important and celebrated of the Revolutionary War-era patriots, famous for his agitation against the Stamp Act, wrote, in his "The Rights of the British Colonies Asserted and Proved", that
The parliament cannot make 2 and 2, 5; Omnipotency cannot do it. The supreme power in a state, is jus dicere [to declare the law] only;—jus dare [to make new laws], strictly speaking, belongs alone to God. Parliaments are in all cases to declare what is parliament that makes it so: There must be in every instance, a higher authority, viz. GOD. Should an act of parliament be against any of his natural laws, which are immutably true, their declaration would be contrary to eternal truth, equity and justice, and consequently void: and so it would be adjudged by the parliament itself, when convinced of their mistake.
It should be added that Otis's work was extremely influential, and carried significant weight in Revolutionary America. And then James Wilson, one of the delegates to the Constitutional Convention, and a deist (so he was the American equivalent of a hiloni!) said, in his law lectures at the College of Philadelphia in 1789 (so the following words were part of lawyer's curriculum at a university),
That law, which God has made for man in his present state; that law, which is communicated to us by reason and conscience, the divine monitors within us, and by the sacred oracles [i.e. Scripture] the divine monitors without [i.e. outside, external to] us...

As promulgated by reason and the moral sense it has been called natural; as promulgated by the holy scriptures, it has been called revealed law.

As addressed to men, it has been denominated the law of nature; as addressed to political societies, it has been denominated the law of nations.

But it should always be remembered, that this law, natural or revealed, made for men or for nations, flows from the same divine source; it is the law of God. ...

Human law must rest its authority, ultimately, upon the authority of that law, which is divine.
So the principle is firmly established: governments are bound by a Higher Law. This has been acknowledged at the Nuremberg trials, it was acknowledged by Martin Luther King, Jr., and it was acknowledged by colonial Americas across the board, even by deists. So if even if it were the Torah alone that posed a challenge to socialism, i.e. even if nothing but the Torah opposed socialism, we should not underestimate how formidible and significant that opposition would be, and how disastrous it ought to be to the socialist cause. Nevertheless, the point of this essay is to argue about the Torah alone, whether or not the Torah alone is a warrant for governments to engage in socialism. Any other sources for socialism are beyond the scope of this essay. (Interestingly, King himself was in favor of a social-democracy. But we learned the desired principles from his letter, that the law of G-d takes precedence over all else. If King did not suitably apply this principle to economics, then that is another matter that does not affect us. The words of his we quoted stand, regardless of whether King himself applied them practically in a way that would satisfy us.)

(In fact, there is yet another reason I am skeptical that the government can punish one for failing to leave tithes. I already said that there is no claimant to sue the farmer. But another reason is found in Mesekhet Makkot. There is a general principle of lo ta`aseh she'yesh bo qum `aseh, a prohibition that contains a positive prescription. What this means is, some negative commandments contain a way to rectify the violation. For example, if you violate the prohibition of taking bird's eggs without shooing away the mother, one can fix this by putting the eggs back. If one repairs his sin, then he cannot be punished. Now, the Gemara has two opinions regarding when one is able to avoid punishment: either he must rectify his sin immediately, post-haste, or face punishment; or else he faces punishment only when his sin is impossible to be fixed anymore. According to the first view, one must return the mother's eggs without delay, or else face punishment. According to the second view, however, one can be punished only when he has not only failed to return the eggs, but furthermore, when the eggs or bird's nest have come into such a state that it is impossible to ever return the eggs, ever again. According to the second view, it is only when the eggs are eaten, for example, making it impossible to return them, that one can be punished. According to this second view, punishing a violator of the agricultural tithes would be very difficult, because Mesekhet Peah contains many prescriptions for what to do if one neglects to leave the tithes. There is almost always a way to rectify one's sin, making it very difficult for the government to punish anyone. Now, maybe the halakhah is like the first view, but my point is that the mere existence of the second view, even if it is not the halakhah, inclines us yet further away from the possibility that the government can institute new tithes and punish violators. If it is so difficult to punish violators of the Torah, G-d's law, surely it must be nearly impossible to punish violators of mere human law!)

19 comments:

Anonymous said...

Did you read Shmuel? There HaShem says to Shmuel that the people can have a king, if they want, but he tells Shmuel to warn them that he will do several unpleasant things, e.g. taking taxes.

This means, when the society is not a 100%-Torah society and needs a government, then this government can take taxes and this is NOT against the will of HaShem.

Mikewind Dale said...

On the contrary, Shmuel is warning us that among the violations of the Torah which the king will commit, is taking taxes. Shmuel's point is only that the king will get away with it. If the king were permitted to do this, then it wouldn't be a bad thing, and Shmuel would be praising the king for such a glorious thing as taxation.

Anonymous said...

If this was right he would warn the king, too. But he warns Shaul only about Amalek and doesn't say a word about taxes. Here you are wrong!

Besides you are an Oleh Chadash and want to study in Israel. Doesn't that mean, you get a socialistic reduction of the fees funded by tax money? I guess, you don't make you of this right, because in your eyes it is stealing?

Mikewind Dale said...

We also don't see anyone warning King Shaul about the prohibition of murdering David. Your argument proves too much.

And regarding college, what am I supposed to do? Just avoid going to any university at all? I suppose that if the government subsidized food, I'd have to starve. Look, I cannot help what the government does. I shouldn't have to go without something I need, just because the government got there first and stuck its finger into it.

Mikewind Dale said...

Also, the Torah says the king must carry a Torah scroll with him, so we already know the king is bound by everything the Torah says. The Torah says theft is prohibited.

Anonymous said...

Actually some food is subsidized in Isreal, but you cannot decide not to eat. But when you think that subsidizes for the university are theft, you don't have to tell them that you are Oleh Chadash and pay the full fee. Of course you also can decide money from what you call theft.

Mikewind Dale said...

> you don't have to tell them that you are Oleh Chadash

I imagine that would cause some legal difficulties.

Anonymous said...

"We also don't see anyone warning King Shaul about the prohibition of murdering David. Your argument proves too much."

It is written in Sefer Shmuel that Shaul knows perfectly well that he is wrong. What else could a warning do?

Anonymous said...

"I imagine that would cause some legal difficulties."

ROFL, when something interests you, you write mails, call people and so on. And here for a "theft according to the Torah" a simple guess allows you to grab the money?

Seems to me that you hate subsidies only when other people get them.

Anonymous said...

If the taamei of mitzvot like tezedaka, peah etc. are all that they build middot of generosity and chesed, what do you think the tachlit of those middot is? I'd say it includes the feeding of the hungry. Or would you claim that good middot are to be cultivated as ends in themselves, so that, say, while poor people starved around you, you could be of fine generous and compassionate character but realistic enough to know it couldn't be helped?

Mikewind Dale said...

I agree that the purpose of these laws is to further the feeding of the hungry, and not merely to improve our inward souls.

But feeding of the hungry, says the Torah, is to be conducted by freely-given tzedaqa, not by a government that extorts and steals money from the people. Nowhere does the Torah give the government the ability to engage in tzedaqa, and so we must conclude that only individuals may.

Mikewind Dale said...

>> "I imagine that would cause
>> some legal difficulties."

> ROFL, when something interests
> you, you write mails, call people
> and so on. And here for a "theft
> according to the Torah" a simple
> guess allows you to grab the money?
>
> Seems to me that you hate
> subsidies only when other people
> get them.

Actually, I do not qualify for any subsidies. As far as I know, I will be paying full price for university in Israel. I do not know of any subsidies that I qualify for, nor will the government be paying me a dime for anything.

LeahGG said...

Paying for university or going on the government's dime as an oleh... very easy to pay yourself.

You go, you don't get a hitchayvut from minhal hastudentim. You ask for the bill. all done.

on the other hand, if you assume that you will stay in Israel and work for many years, then you can assume that you'll pay it all back in taxes...

Moreover - your whole argument here is completely goofy. Medinat Yisrael is a political entity. It has the right to do anything that any other political entity does.

All you're proving here is that the State of Israel is a political entity rather than a religious one.

If you live in a country, use its roads and highways and are protected by its military, you have to obey its laws. Taxation is one of those.

Have a problem with it? Make a petition, stage a protest, write a letter, or move away.

LeahGG said...

And one more thing - there's no Torah prohibition against pouring water on the floor, yet if my kids do it, I send them to their rooms. Why? because it doesn't meet the needs of my micro-society (my home).

There's no Torah prohibition against driving on the left side of the street -driving on the right is a completely arbitrary law as evidenced by the fact that in Britain, everyone drives on the left, and it's ok, yet if someone does it (in a country where driving is on the right side), I certainly hope the police will punish him for that crime.

A society has the right to punish for misdeeds that are not legislated in the Torah.

Mikewind Dale said...

LeahGG,

> Moreover - your whole argument
> here is completely goofy. Medinat
> Yisrael is a political entity. It
> has the right to do anything that
> any other political entity does.
>
> All you're proving here is that
> the State of Israel is a
> political entity rather than a
> religious one.

You've misunderstood my argument, then. I was arguing about what the Torah justifies. My point was that one cannot use the Torah as a justification for a socialistic state. As such, it was legitimate for me to limit all of my arguments to Torah-based ones.

If one wishes to use a different justification, a non-Torah one, then please, by all means, use it, and I will respond to it appropriately, either agreeing or disagreeing with it.

But all this blog post tried to do was show that the Torah cannot be one's basis for socialism.

Thus, I repeatedly discussed how the government cannot punish one for failing to give tithes that it - not G-d - instituted. Again, the discussion was about what the Torah justifies, and so my point was a Torah-based one, that the state cannot use the Torah to justify enforcement of tithes that it innovated itself, and then claim that the Torah is what gave the state its warrant to practice socialism.

Again, justifications for socialism may exist, but the Torah is not one of them. But my concern here was with the Torah alone. So when you say, "A society has the right to punish for misdeeds that are not legislated in the Torah.", you are correct. But I would respond that if a society can punish misdeeds that are not legislated in the Torah, then it cannot cite the Torah as its source of authority. A government may have the right to be socialistic, but it cannot claim the Torah is its source.

to be continued

Mikewind Dale said...

continued from above

> If you live in a country, use its
> roads and highways and are
> protected by its military, you
> have to obey its laws. Taxation
> is one of those.

By that logic, German soldiers were obligated to murder Jews. After all, if you wish to benefit from the state, you must obey its law.

My point is that it is absurd to say that the government's laws do not require a moral justification. No human law can be binding just because the state created it. Legal positivism is a monstrosity. The Nuremberg trials are an extreme example, but they amply illustrate the principle, that legal positivism is beyond the pale of acceptability.

Similarly, when Rabbi Meir Kahane was asked how he could add to the conventional oath for office in the Knesset, in which he added himself swear that he would obey the state's laws only when they accorded with the Torah, he rightly pointed out that Martin Luther King, Jr. said,

One may want to ask: "How can you advocate breaking some laws and obeying others?" The answer lies in the fact that there are two types of laws: just and unjust. I would be the first to advocate obeying just laws. One has not only a legal but a moral responsibility to obey just laws. Conversely, one has a moral responsibility to disobey unjust laws. I would agree with St. Augustine that "an unjust law is no law at all"

Now, what is the difference between the two? How does one determine whether a law is just or unjust? A just law is a man-made code that squares with the moral law or the law of God. An unjust law is a code that is out of harmony with the moral law. To put it in the terms of St. Thomas Aquinas: An unjust law is a human law that is not rooted in eternal law and natural law. Any law that uplifts human personality is just. Any law that degrades human personality is unjust. All segregation statutes are unjust because segregation distorts the soul and damages the personality.


Similarly, James Otis, one of the most important and celebrated of the Revolutionary War-era patriots, famous for his agitation against the Stamp Act, wrote, The parliament cannot make 2 and 2, 5; Omnipotency cannot do it. The supreme power in a state, is jus dicere [to declare the law] only;—jus dare [to make new laws], strictly speaking, belongs alone to God. Parliaments are in all cases to declare what is parliament that makes it so: There must be in every instance, a higher authority, viz. GOD. Should an act of parliament be against any of his natural laws, which are immutably true, their declaration would be contrary to eternal truth, equity and justice, and consequently void: and so it would be adjudged by the parliament itself, when convinced of their mistake.

to be continued

Mikewind Dale said...

continued from above

James Wilson, one of the delegates to the Constitutional Convention, and a deist (so he was the American equivalent of a hiloni) said, in his law lectures at the College of Philadelphia in 1789 (so the following words were part of lawyer's curriculum at a university),

That law, which God has made for man in his present state; that law, which is communicated to us by reason and conscience, the divine monitors within us, and by the sacred oracles [i.e. Scripture] the divine monitors without [i.e. outside, external to] us...

As promulgated by reason and the moral sense it has been called natural; as promulgated by the holy scriptures, it has been called revealed law.

As addressed to men, it has been denominated the law of nature; as addressed to political societies, it has been denominated the law of nations.

But it should always be remembered, that this law, natural or revealed, made for men or for nations, flows from the same divine source; it is the law of God. ...

Human law must rest its authority, ultimately, upon the authority of that law, which is divine.


So the principle is firmly established: governments are bound by a Higher Law. This has been acknowledged at the Nuremberg trials, it was acknowledged by Martin Luther King, Jr., and it was acknowledged by colonial Americas across the board, even by deists.

to be continued

Mikewind Dale said...

> And one more thing - there's no
> Torah prohibition against pouring
> water on the floor, yet if my
> kids do it, I send them to their
> rooms. Why? because it doesn't
> meet the needs of my micro-
> society (my home).

Exactly. You own your house, and so you can stipulate conditions for others to be allowed to use it. But the government does not own the country - the people do - and so it cannot stipulate conditions for use of the country the same way that you can stipulate conditions for the use of your house.

For the government to be able to stipulate absolute, non-negotiable terms for the use of the country, would be like a Shabbat guest getting to dictate terms to his host. It's absurd.

So whatever power the government has to tax - and I do admit that it has that power - must be in agreement with the Higher Law. No taxes can be levied which are in violation of that Higher Law. For example, more than a decade before America declared independence, meaning that Britain was still the recognized sovereign of America, the Stamp Act Congress of 1764 declared in its "The Declaration of Rights" that, "That the only representatives of the people of these colonies, are persons chosen therein by themselves; and that no taxes ever have been, or can be constitutionally imposed on them, but by their respective legislatures." In other words, the Stamp Act Congress recognized Britain as the legal sovereign of America, but nevertheless categorically denied it the legal right to lay taxes on America. Britain responded with the Declaratory Act, directly disputing this claim, saying that Britain had a right to lay taxes "in all cases whatsoever". But the Americans disputed this, and thirteen years later, they declared independence.

Similarly the "Declaration of Rights and Grievances" of 1774, against the Intolerable Acts, said, "That the foundation of English liberty, and of all free government, is a right in the people to participate in their legislative council: and as the English colonists are not represented, and from their local and other circumstances, cannot properly be represented in the British parliament, they are entitled to a free and exclusive power of legislation in their several provincial legislatures, where their right of representation can alone be preserved, in all cases of taxation and internal polity, subject only to the negative of their sovereign, in such manner as has been heretofore used and accustomed."

That is, they rejected Britain's claim that it had a right to tax America, even though the Americans admitted that Britain was the lawful sovereign.

to be continued

Mikewind Dale said...

continued from above

The Declaration continued, however, saying, "But, from the necessity of the case, and a regard to the mutual interest of both countries, we cheerfully consent to the operation of such acts of the British parliament, as are bona fide restrained to the regulation of our external commerce, for the purpose of securing the commercial advantages of the whole empire to the mother country, and the commercial benefits of its respective members excluding every idea of taxation, internal or external, for raising a revenue on the subjects in America without their consent."

In other words, the Americans admitted that taxes are legitimate, if they are for legitimate purposes. For the sake of regulating external commerce, i.e. for the sake of ensuring safe, secure, reliable, and consistent trade, taxes are permitted. Such regulation benefits everyone equally. But for the sake of raising revenue by taxing some products more than others, such as by raising tariffs on specific products, this is not permitted. You can tax to provide a navy to guard the waterways, for example, but you cannot tax to favor some goods and merchants and disfavor others, such as by taxing specific products or taxing foreign goods.

So the Americans made two claims:
(1) Britain, notwithstanding its being the lawful sovereign, lacked the authority to tax America;
(2) Even a lawful authority may tax only for just and fair purposes, but not for unfair or biased or parochial or sectarian purposes. Any taxes must be levied on everyone equally, for the sake of providing benefits to everyone equally. This is the meaning of taxation for the "general welfare." Taxing the rich to pay for the poor, for example, would fail to meet this standard, and would be illegal.

But again, that was not the point of this blog post. My point was only to show that if your arguments are limited to Torah-based ones, then you cannot justify socialism. If one wishes to justify socialism, one must turn to something other than the Torah.

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