I believe the contemporary Israeli Rabbinut epitomizes the contemporary breakdown of minhag ha-maqom (communal custom). Without kehillot (communities) with minhagei meqomot (plural: customs of communities), the Israeli Rabbinut is just a vast leviathan that must cater to every minhag (custom) around. There is no longer such a thing as a local communal beit din (Rabbinical court) that can oversee matters especially for the local community. This is just the way things are, and I don't see them changing anytime soon.
Minhag ha-maqom began to break down with the Spanish Expulsion, when Sephardim found themselves in Ottoman lands with Romaniote (Byzantine, Judeo-Greek) Jews, and sometimes in Ashkenazi lands. Traditional geographic-based communities were broken up, and people from different communities found themselves suddenly to be geographic neighbors. (This also happened within the Sephardim, when Sephardim from different cities in Spain suddenly found themselves living in the same area in Turkey.)
With the Spanish Expulsion, the question arose: does one follow the original minhag ha-maqom even when the immigrants outnumber the natives, or does one follow the new minhag ha-maqom being imposed by the more numerous immigrants? For example, if the incoming Sephardi immigrants outnumber the native Romaniotes, does one follow Spanish or Byzantine minhag? But everyone agreed that one minhag ha-maqom was to prevail, because the concept of minhag avot (ancestral custom of ones genetic forefathers) had not yet been invented.
Minhag avot was not invented until Ashkenazim, after WWII, found themselves in Western European countries, all mixed together, and also in Israel, living alongside Sephardim. This had already happened a little bit in previous centuries, such as when the disciples of the Vilna Gaon and Baal Shem Tov made `aliyah to a Sephardi-dominated Israel, for example, but the Holocaust provided the most extreme case of destroying communities.
From this, minhag avot was invented. The reasoning seems to have been that when the Torah concept of minhag ha-maqom (i.e. following your community's customs) no longer suffices - because when no geographically self-contained kehillot exist, no minhag ha-maqom can either - that in such a case, we are permitted to flout the Torah and engage in Reform-style violation of bal tosif (the prohibition of adding onto the Torah). In this case, when minhag ha-maqom no longer "works", we can invent minhag avot, whole-cloth, and tell people to follow the customs of their ancestors, even though there is no support for this notion in the Torah or Talmud. I speak of obligations; that is, the Torah and Talmud speak of an obligation to follow the customs of one's neighbors, not of one's ancestors.
Similarly, when I express my libertarian politics, people often complain that without government welfare, the poor will starve. I doubt this is true (have you heard of a little thing called tzedaqa?), but even if it were, the problem with these people is that they believe a worthy goal (viz. helping the poor) legitimates a crime (viz. government theft, otherwise known as "taxes"). I'm sorry if the poor will starve, but this doesn't make it alright to violate the Torah prohibitions of geneiva and gezeila (stealthy theft and armed robbery).
In short, people usually think in a utilitarian fashion (i.e. based on results), while I think in an deontological fashion (i.e. based on absolute morality). In other words, other people think only of the ends, while I work to ensure the means are justified as well. When faced with the breakdown of kehillot, or the the starvation of the poor, people think in a utilitarian fashion, and are concerned only with the desired end. They find ways to salvage the situation, by inventing minhag avot out of thin air, and by taxing people without their consent. By contrast, I think deontologically, based on means that are justified: does the breakdown of kehillot or the situation of the poor legitimate my violating the Torah, or not? In short, I reject using unjust means to accomplish a just end. Tzedeq tzedeq tirdof: "justice justice shall you seek", meaning your pursuit of justice must itself be just. So again, I don't care how much the poor are starving, for theft is theft, period.
Furthermore, I believe that if the government got out of the welfare business, then private individuals would step up. When the government is involved, people stop caring. You can have a poor widow starving next-door, but you won't ever even see her face, because you'll tell yourself that welfare is covering her needs. Welfare breeds complacency not merely for the recipients, but even for their neighbors. If the government were not involved, then citizens would realize they must take matters into their own hands, and actually take the time to bake a casserole for that poor widow next-door. The Israeli Rabbinut today causes the same problem. Because the Rabbinut builds all the synagogues and provides all the rabbis, there is no sense of communal solidarity in Israel. There are no kehillot. In America, synagogues must be built and rabbis hired by the willingness and work of the members. Thus, the communities are much more alive. It is also much easier for a single, unmarried individual to find a Shabbat meal, for example, because there is an entire communal framework set up. But in Israel, no one belongs to a community. The synagogues and rabbis exist without anyone's having to be involved, and so no one feels any loyalty or responsibility, either to the synagogue or to the surrounding community. Everything is fluid and anarchic, and so a single person has nowhere to go to ask for a Shabbat meal.
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8 comments:
Sir:
Thank you for your article. I was googling deontology and your essay came up. Unfortunately, not only have many rejected deontology in favor of utilitarianism, but most folk don't even know what deontology is. Indeed, as I write this, the computer draws a red line under every use of the word deontology. There, it did it again. As a wise man once noted, whoever controls language controls how folk think. (I'm paraphrasing, of course.) By claiming that the word deontology is not a word, they are not giving the ideology of deontology a fair hearing. We must ask ourselves the obvious question: who is behind the assault on the word deontology? To answer that we must ask ourselves another question: who benefits from repressing this word? The answer is obvious. Israel and its supporters have the most to gain by assaulting deontology and not giving it a fair hearing. While the dissolution of the Zionist state and immediate return of all Palestinians to historic Palestine wouldn't be utilitarian because of the genocide it would certainly lead to, deontologically speaking the Palestinians must be allowed to claim their ancestral homeland, and the Zionists must either return home (Poland, Germany, etc.) or suffer the consequences (forced sterilizations, internment camps, etc.). Anyway, we deontologists are an endangered breed, and I just wanted to say that I appreciate your article.
EFS
It really seem very straight forward. Rambam clearly states that each individual Beit Din rules independently for it's "community" even when there are multiple Beitai Din in the same city. Even if they reach opposite conclusions on the exact same subject in the same city each community follows it's own Beit Din since only the Sanhedrin can resolve these dispute and today there is no Sanhedrin. I think this is where R. Bar-Hayyim from Machon Shiloh derives his authority to create a separate "minhag eretz yisrael"
Indeed. Without a Sanhedrin, no one can claim hierarchical authority over another. The best we can do is argue that each local community must have a minhag ha-maqom.
As far as the "logic" behind minhag avot, I think you are giving way too much credit where none is due. The whole notion of minhag hamakom deals with the very question of uprooted communities (once uprooted, various individual Jews and families migrate to very different parts of the world and take up residence there, where other Jews are already residing). The halachoth on the subject of minhag hamakom are relevant to that very question, or else they serve no purpose at all. So saying that Ashkenazi communities were uprooted really does not address the question. The minhag hamakom rulings are crafted as the appropriate halachic response to an uprooting and subsequent relocating.
The real logic was the following: It's all fine and dandy when Sephardim are forced to adopt Ashkenazi customs when they arrive in "our" ashkenazi lands - then the halacha agrees with what I want and therefore we accept the halacha. But when Ashkenazi Jews would be compelled or encouraged by the halacha to actually adopt different customs and discard some of their own, no - we cannot allow Ashkenazim to become non-Ashkenazim or to become Sephardim, and therefore in that case we will say the halachoth of minhag hamakom no longer apply because we don't want to accept these halachoth because we will have to bend a little on our entrenched cultural identity and we prefer to remain separate and distinct from the Jews of Spain and middle eastern countries rather than mix with them and form cohesive communities. We would rather be divisive and try to re-create the communities that were just destroyed, but in new places where other community or communities already exist. And yes, it is very reformist violation.
I see this attitude manifest itself many times. If you ever spend time in a baal teshuvah yeshiva, you will see how actively Sephardim are encouraged to adopt Ashkenazi customs and basically become haredi ashkenazim. (Or gerim, or even baalei teshuva who prefer to be sephardi - these are also encouraged to be like "everyone" else and be absorbed into ashkenazi jewry). But suggest that an ashkenazi-born Jew even dabble in a Sephardi custom or 2 and all hell breaks loose. It is even viewed as an averah by many people!
Well, basically, yeah, that was the point I was driving at, even if I did not put it in such graphically ethno-centric terms.
My point was that the Ashkenazim will choose to emphasize either minhag ha-maqom or minhag avot, depending on which one will permit them to retain their own customs. When faced with a great multitude of other traditions - whether other Ashkenazi traditions, or Sephardi ones - they will champion minhag avot, for this is what will allow them to continue their practices.
But I have no doubt that if a Sephardi moved into an Ashkenazi locale, that the Ashkenazim would do their best to instead champion minhag ha-maqom and force the Sephardim to Ashkenazify.
I lived for 3 years in Pittsburgh and knew a Yeminite Rabbi and his family who underwent a formal Ashkinazification conversion ceremony with the local Beit Din ( many years ago ). Most of the Sepharidim in the community "converted" also, although I don't know if they did it in such a formal way. I remember the nostalgic looks I would occasionally get from one of them ( an Iraqi ) when I would put my tallit on. However, I have heard of the opposite happening. On the road to Jerusalem at Motza there is a museum dedicated to the Yalin family. Apparently, one of the stipulations when the Polish Yehoshua Yalin got married to his Iraqi wife was that he had to adopt the minhagim of his wife's family. Of course this was around 1857 in Jerusalem.
Formal??!! That's disgusting.
As for the Pole and Iraqi, it makes sense for 1857.
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